“NonStop Advanced Application Development”, also known as HP0-787 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 192 Q&A to your HP0-787 Exam preparation. In the HP0-787 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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QUESTION 1
What do you use to list procedure names in a TNS object file?

A. NLD
B. NOFT
C. AR
D. BIND
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A JVM must be started with to enable jdb debugging support.

A. -Xdebug
B. -jdb
C. -Inspect
D. -Debug
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Where can breakpoints be set in jdb? Select TWO.

A. at the first instruction of a method
B. at a verb at a data object
C. at a line number
D. at a statement
Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4
The compiler option SYNTAX or WSYNTAX ________

A. creates an executable object file
B. suppresses errors
C. inserts the source in the object
D. checks the source for errors
Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is a valid INSPECT command for debugging SCREEN COBOL?

A. BREAK
B. STEP IN
C. STOP
D. SAVE
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
To RESTORE a partitioned SQL table to a different destination, which option is required?

A. PHYSVOL
B. REBUILD
C. MAP NAMES
D. VOL
Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two advantages specific to a DLL (Dynamic Link Library)? Select TWO.

A. It contains Position Independent Code (PlC).
B. It is loaded during cold load.
C. It is composed of shared code.
D. It can have private data.
E. It can be unloaded from a process.
Answer: A, E

QUESTION 8
What can user libraries be used for? Select TWO.

A. to provide source code for compilation
B. to share common compiled procedures
C. to override an operating system procedure
D. to provide an alternate main procedure/program
E. to switch from native to non-native mode
Answer: B, C

QUESTION 9
The file EXTDECS, CEXBDEXT, or COBOLEXT contains the procedure declarations for which
routines?

A. user library routines
B. system library routines
C. third-party library routines
D. SQL routines
Answer: B

QUESTION 10
The purpose of the CTOEDIT utility is to _______

A. convert unstructured files to structured files
B. convert C application code written on the PC to a Guardian edit file
C. convert OSS text files to Guardian text files
D. generate OSS code to be used in Guardian
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What provides the execution control services needed to debug SCREEN COBOL programs?

A. DMON
B. CMON
C. TCP
D. IMON
Answer: C

* certpaper hp HP0-787 Questions and Answers : 192 Q&A
* Updated: October 29th , 2008.

“HP Business Availability Center 6.5 Software”, also known as HP0-M20 exam, is a HP certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 120 Q&As to your HP0-M20 Exam preparation. In the HP0-M20 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.

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Question: 1
Which statement best describes the Monitor Administration?

A. The Monitor Administration is responsible for adding monitors to Sitescope and CMDB.
B. The Monitor Administration is responsible for the configuration of Business Process Monitor
and CM profiles ONLY.
C. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for EMS monitoring configuration and
administration activity only when the Sitescope is registered to BAC.
D. The Monitor Administration is the starting point for any monitoring configuration and
administration activity.
Answer: D

Question: 2
Which URLs are used to navigate to the Sitescope home page? Select two.

A. Http://:8080/sitescope
B. Http://:8888/sitescope
C. Http://:8180/sitescope
D. Http://:2696/sitescope
Answer: A, B

Question: 3
Which statement best describes a situation for choosing to use the Monitor Deployment Wizard?

A. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the
CMDB and other CI’s that are still not inserted to the CMDB
B. When you want to deploy a set of SiteScope monitors to applications or servers that were
already populated in the CMDB through discovery
C. When you want to create the same set of monitors for different remote machines in SiteScope
D. When you want to create a relationship between SiteScope monitors that are already in the
CMDB and other CI’s that are still not inserted to the CMDB
Answer: B

Question: 4
Which operating systems support SiteScope installation?

A. Window, Linux and Solaris
B. Windows and Solaris
C. Windows only
D. Windows and Linux
Answer: A

Question: 5
If your core server is replaced by another core server, what task should you perform on
SiteScope to integrate the new core server?

A. I will reset BAC integration from the SiteScope UI and then attach SiteScope to already
existing profile.
B. I will reset integration and will reconnect SiteScope.
C. I don’t need to do anything the recovery is automatic.
D. I need to detach SiteScope, redirect it to the new core server from SiteScope UI and then
attach it back to MA.
Answer: D

Question: 6
In the profile creation wizard, what will happen when you select the profile database name (in a
multiple profile database environment) from the combo box?

A. A failure to create the profile since the default profile database is the only allowed option
B. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database ONLY if it was marked as the
default database
C. Data from the created profile to be sent to the selected database
D. You don’t have an option to select the database - it is selected automatically for you by the
Business Availability Center server
Answer: C

Question: 7
What is the quickest way to create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor?

A. Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach
the monitor from within the view
B. Create profile and use the attach CI option in the Monitoring Administration profile creation
operation - this will automatically create the link between the CI and the Monitor entity
C. To use the Monitor Deployment Wizard and automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI
D. To use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process
Answer: B

Question: 8
What server do you need to specify when registering SiteScope to BAC?

A. core server
B. processing server
C. center server
D. all servers
Answer: A

Question: 9
How do you change the default schedule of the business process profile execution?

A. Access the Business Process Monitor admin web UI http:// Machine Name>:2696 and from there change the schedule interval
B. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and Only during the
creation process of the profile
C. Access the Monitoring Administration business process profile wizard and during the creation
process of the profile or later change the scheduling interval from the Monitoring
Administration
D. Change it to the minimal schedule of 15 minutes
Answer: C

* certpaper hp HP0-M20 Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
* Updated: October 29th , 2008.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 75 Q&As to your E20-850 Exam preparation. In the E20-850 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in EMC Certification helping to ready you for your successful EMC Certification.

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QUESTION 1:
Certkiller .com wants to implement an exchange environment, but is financially restricted.
They have calculated its read write ratio to be 3:1. What RAID solution would you
suggest for the Exchange Database LUNs?

A. RAID-5
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-3
D. RAID-1/0
Answer: A

QUESTION 2:
Certkiller .com has a CX500 in Boston that is mirrored over IP to a CX500 at a remote
site 20 miles away in Newton, with MirrorView. Which statement applies, if they want to
add an NS700G to both existing CX500s?

A. An NS700G can be attached to the Boston CX500 but not the Newton site.
B. An NS700G can be attached to each the Boston and Newton site.
C. An NS700G is not supported in this configuration.
D. An NS700G can be attached to the Newton site but not the Boston site.
Answer: C

QUESTION 3:
When writing an entire stripe of data, which of the following will have the lower latency
on the backend?

A. 8+1 RAID-5 Group 73GB drives.
B. 4+4 RAID-1/0 Group 73GB drives.
C. 8+8 RAID-1/0 Group 73GB drives.
D. 4+1 RAID-5 Group 73GB drives.
Answer: D

QUESTION 4:
In the testing process of a script that Certkiller .com has written for its SnapView
implementation, they discover that the backup host will not consistently see the Snapshot
presented to it. The following lines are included in the script:
navicli -h SPA snapview -startsession sess1 -snapshotname snap1
navicli -h SPA snapview -activatesnapshot sess1 -snapshotname snap1
What would you suggest they do?

A. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the production host.
B. Start the Session with admsnap on the production host.
C. Start the Session with admsnap on the backup host.
D. Activate the Snapshot with admsnap on the backup host.
Answer: D

QUESTION 5:
Certkiller .com is apprehensive about the performance effects of SnapView on its Source
LUNs. Which actions should you take when determining the extra load?

A. View the Session Properties in Navisphere Manager. Check the Number of Writes
from the Reserved LUN Pool. This equals the extra write load on the Source LUNs.
B. Load Analyzer. View the number of reads from the Reserved LUNs. This equals the
extra read load on the Source LUNs.
C. Load Analyzer. View the number of writes to the Reserved LUNs. This equals the
extra write load on the Source LUNs.
D. View the Session Properties in Navisphere Manager. Check the Number of Writes
from the Reserved LUN Pool. This equals the extra read load on the Source LUNs.
Answer: D

QUESTION 6:
While connecting a SUN host to a CLARiiON, you only see LUNs thru one HBA, even
though Navisphere Agent, CLI, and PowerPath are all loaded. What is possibly the
problem?

A. The st.conf file is set up incorrectly.
B. DMP is enabled.
C. Navisphere Agent has incorrect IP for one SP.
D. DMP is disabled.
Answer: D

certpaper emc E20-850 Questions and Answers : 75 Q&As
Updated: 2008-2-14

“Citrix Access Suite 4.0:Analysis”, also known as 1Y0-613 exam, is a Citrix certification. Preparing for the 1Y0-613 exam? Searching 1Y0-613 Test Questions, 1Y0-613 Practice Exam, 1Y0-613 Dumps? With the complete collection of questions and answers, certpaper has assembled to take you through 88 Q&A to your 1Y0-613 Exam preparation. In the 1Y0-613 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Citrix Certification helping to ready you for your successful Citrix Certification. Questions and Answers : 88 Q&A Updated: 2008-2-11 Market Price: $119.99 Member Price: $59.99

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1. Scenario: A company asked you to assess their access strategy, with focus on their remote access solution. All
issues reported relating to remote access have been traced back to network connections or user permissions. Click
on the exhibit button to view the current configuration of this environment. Based on the exhibit, what is your
assessment of their implementation?

A. The current configuration is adequate.
B. Web Interface should be moved to the internal network.
C. Additional Web Interface redundancy should be deployed
D. Additional Secure Gateway redundancy should be deployed
Answer: A

2. Scenario: A medical company has hired you to assess their current access strategy and make security and
redundancy recommendations to ensure tight control access and availability to their Presentation Server-based
ordering system. The company does not want internal users to have network access to the DMZ. At this time, the
company cannot purchase additional hardware. Their environment is standardized with servers of the same
hardware configuration, and each server hosts the same set of applications. The servers are fairly new; they were
purchased a year ago. Each Presentation Server has resource utilization of approximately 40-50% during business
hours. The company allows sales to pre-defined distributors as entered by call center agents, as well as direct
order entry by these distributors. Click on the exhibit button to view their current setup. What is your assessment
of their current implementation?

A. Web Interface should be removed from the Secure Gateway servers.
B. The current environment represents high security based on the server resources that are available.
C. One of the Presentation Servers should be reallocated exclusively as the data store database server, and the
MSDE data store should be moved to that server.
D. The two Secure Gateway/Web Interface servers should segregate functionality in the DMZ so that Secure
Gateway is located on one server and Web Interface is located on another server.
Answer: B

3. Scenario: A recording company, based in Alaska, recently began an expansion effort and has since opened a
satellite office in Seattle. The company also relocated approximately 15% of its Alaska staff there. The company’s
current environment includes Access Gateway Advanced Edition integrated with Presentation Server 4.0 in VPN
mode as the single point of entry. Users in the satellite office need to access MetReg, a recording database that
contains the company’s customer data. The company is very careful about allowing access to important
information from external entry points. The IT team wants to have the capability to provide external users with
restricted access to this SQL database. The IT Director is currently seeking consultation to implement the new
access strategy. Based on the current situation at this company, how would you recommend the IT team optimize
their Access Gateway Advanced Edition environment?
A. Implement access to the database application as a file share but deny the Seattle users read permissions
B. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with File Type Association for external users.
C. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with File Type Association for external
users.
D. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with the Download action control for external
users
Answer: B

4. Scenario: A mobile phone company has Citrix Presentation Server 4.0 implemented in its environment. The
CIO has mandated that no single points of failure exist within the environment. The company has hired you to
assess their Citrix environment. Which two statements explain why the installation of another license server,
which will not be clustered, is not necessary? (Choose two.)
A. The addition of another license server will increase IT workload.
B. The addition of another license server will reduce current network bandwidth.
C. The addition of another license server does not address the requirement because two license servers cannot
share the same license file.
D. The addition of another license server will not help the company because Presentation Server users will still be
able to connect for up to 30 days after connection is lost to the license server.
E. The addition of another license server will provide for load balancing. Presentation Servers will have the option
to connect to the least busy license server or the license server closest to them.
Answer: CD

# certpaper citrix 1Y0-613 Questions and Answers : 126 Q&As
# Updated: October 29th , 2008.

“Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks”, also known as 642-845 exam, is a Cisco certification.

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QUESTION NO: 4
Certifyme.com is rolling out an H.323 VOIP network using Cisco devices. Which IOS
feature provides dial plan scalability and bandwidth management for H.323 VoIP
implementations?

A. Digital Signal Processors
B. Call Routing
C. Gatekeeper
D. Call Admission Control
E. None of the above
Answer: C

Explanation:
Enterprise voice implementations use components such as gateways, gatekeepers, Cisco
Unified CallManager, and IP phones. Cisco Unified CallManager offers PBX-like
features to IP phones. Gateways interconnect traditional telephony systems, such as
analog or digital phones, PBXs, or the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to the
IP telephony solution. Gatekeepers can be used for scalability of dial plans and for
bandwidth management when using the H.323 protocol.

QUESTION NO: 5
A Cisco router is being used as a VOIP gateway to convert voice signals in the
Certifyme.com network. What steps are taken when a router converts a voice signal from
analog to digital form? (Select two)

A. Quantization
B. Serialization
C. Packetization
D. Sampling
Answer: A, D

Explanation:
Step 1 Sampling: The analog signal is sampled periodically. The output of the sampling
is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.
Step 2 Quantization: The PAM signal is matched to a segmented scale. This scale
measures the amplitude (height) of the PAM signal.
Step 3 Encoding: The matched scale value is represented in binary format.
Step 4 Compression: Optionally, voice samples can be compressed to reduce bandwidth
requirements. Analog-to-digital conversion is done by digital signal processors (DSPs),
which are located on the voice interface cards. The conversion is needed for calls
received on analog lines, which are then sent out to a packet network or to a digital voice
interface.

QUESTION NO: 6
You need to implement the proper IOS tools to ensure that VOIP works over the
Certifyme.com network. Which queuing and compression mechanisms are needed to
effectively use the available bandwidth for voice traffic? (Select two)

A. Priority Queuing (PQ) or Custom Queuing (CQ)
B. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)
D. Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression
Answer: D, E

Explanation:
1. Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality
to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers
can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access
control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and
traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow,
or “conversation”, can belong to a class.

Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be
assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet
limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class
during congestion.

CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is
proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface
bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth
value will have a lower weight.

By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75
percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for
control and routing traffic.

The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum
number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to
a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
2. TCP/IP header compression subscribes to the Van Jacobson Algorithm defined in RFC
1144. TCP/IP header compression lowers the overhead generated by the
disproportionately large TCP/IP headers as they are transmitted across the WAN. TCP/IP
header compression is protocol-specific and only compresses the TCP/IP header. The
Layer 2 header is still intact and a packet with a compressed TCP/IP header can still
travel across a WAN link.
TCP/IP header compression is beneficial on small packets with few bytes of data such as
Telnet. Cisco’s header compression supports Frame Relay and dial-on-demand WAN link
protocols. Because of processing overhead, header compression is generally used at
lower speeds, such as 64 kbps links.

certpaper ccnp ont 642-845 Questions and Answers : 312 Q&As
Updated: 2008-09-05.

“Acrobat 7.0 Prowith Adobe LiveCycle Designer ACE Exam”, also known as 9A0-042 exam, is a Adobe certification.

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1.You have created an Adobe Acrobat document. Due to the settings of your font vendor, some of your fonts have
NOT been embedded. You give the PDF document to two co-workers who do NOT have the original font installed
on their computers. What happens when they print your document?
A. The document will NOT print due to a PostScript error.
B. A Multiple Master typeface will be temporarily substituted.
C. The original font will print as a low resolution bitmapped font.
D. They will be asked to choose a font to be substituted during printing.
Answer: B

2.You want to change the units of measure for a form design from inches to points. Where or how should you
make this change?
A. in the Layout palette
B. in the Data View palette
C. in the Drawing Aids palette
D. by choosing File > Form Properties
Answer: C

3.You want to cut, copy, paste, delete, resize, or reposition Content Areas in a form design. Where should you
make the changes?
A. Body Page
B. Master Page
C. PDF Preview
D. Custom Library
Answer: B

4.You want to ensure that elements, such as page numbering appear in the same position on all pages of your form
design. Where should you place these elements?
A. in the Body Page
B. on a Master Page
C. in the Data View palette
D. in the Custom tab of the Library palette
Answer: B

5.You are creating an Adobe PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. Users will print the PDF document
on laser and ink jet printers. You want to maintain print quality while minimizing the file size. From Word, you
choose Adobe PDF > Change Conversion Settings. Which option should you choose from the Conversion Settings
pull-down menu in the PDFMaker Settings panel?
A. Standard
B. High Quality
C. Press Quality
D. Smallest File Size
Answer: A

6.You are applying password security to a PDF document. Which setting prevents search engines from accessing
information such as author and keywords?
A. Encrypt all document contents
B. Enable copying of text, images, and other content
C. Enable text access for screen reader devices for the visually impaired
D. Encrypt all document contents except metadata (Acrobat 6 and later compatible)
Answer: A

7.After choosing File > Create PDF > From Multiple Files, you select multiple files for consolidation into a single
PDF document. In which order will the selected files, displayed in the Files to Combine field of the dialog, be
consolidated?
A. alphabetical order
B. the order displayed in the list
C. the sort order specified in the Organizer window
D. the sort order specified in the Convert to PDF dialog box
Answer: B
# certpaper adobe 9A0-042 Questions and Answers : 114 questions
# Updated: October 30th , 2008.

Vendor: HP
Exam Code: HP0-794
Exam Name: Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions

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QUESTION 1:

During the configuration of a virtual SQL Server, what does the Failover Cluster wizard prompt you
for?

A. The name and IP address of the virtual SQL Server.
B. The name and IP address of the ProLiant server where Windows Server 2003 is installed.
C. The user account and password.
D. The port or socket number used by the virtual SQL server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

What is the leading cause of downtime?

A. Hardware features
B. Operational Activities
C. Software features
D. Infrastructure problems

Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

You are the administrator of a Windows Server 2003 Server Cluster. You need to manage the cluster
remotely, which utilities should you use to perform this task? Select TWO.

A. Cluster.exe
B. Intelligent Cluster Administrator
C. Comclust.exe
D. Claudmin.exe
E. Cluster Manager

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4:

Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?

A. Only licence for the first node in the cluster were requred for SQL 7.0;all nodes must have licence for
SQL 2000.
B. Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same set
of disks for SQL 2000.
C. Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D. Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of SQL
2000.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

What type of disk access support do SQL Server 2000 and the Cluster service provide?

A. Dynamic disk
B. Shared Disk
C. Mutual disk
D. Shared-nothing disk

Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which key consideration determines the optimum time to manually move a cluster group to balance the
load?

A. Load balancing operations must be performed during non-peak hours.
B. Load balancing needs to occur when the overall cluster usage is high.
C. The optimum time depends on type of group that needs to be moved and how many clients are using the
group.
D. Performance can charge when applications or resource transfer from one node to another.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7:

Which new Windows Server 2003 clustering features enable you to use clustering more easily than was
possible with Windows 2000? Select TWO.

A. Multinode addition
B. Network failure recovery
C. Installed by default
D. Windows Scripting Host
E. Four-node cluster support

Answer: A, C

QUESTION 8:

Which version of Microsoft Windows Server 2003 supports systems using up to 32-way symmetric
multiprocessing?
A. Advanced Edition
B. Datacenter Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Professional Edition
E. Standard Edition

Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

Which action should you perform to simplify replacing an existing node?

A. Remove all peripherals from the node being replaced and install them in the replacement node.
B. Retain the Windows Server 2003 boot drives from the node being replaced and install them in the
replacement node.
C. Take all resources and groups offline on both nodes and shut down both nodes.
D. Verify that all components from the node being replaced are identical to those in the replacement node.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Which 32-bit version of Microsoft Windows Server 2003 supports a maximum of eight processors and
32GB of memory?

A. Datacenter Edition
B. Advanced Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Professional Edition
E. Standard Edition

Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Which tool is used for viewing recorded cluster events?

A. SANworks Resource Manager
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Cluster Administrator
C. Windows Server 2003 Event Viewer
D. Insight Manager 7 Cluster Monitor

Answer: C

Exam Number/Code: 642-533
Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
VUE Code: 642-533
Exam Language(s): English

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Exam Number/Code: 642-061
Exam Name:Routing and Switching Solutions for System Engineers
VUE Code: 642-061
Exam Language(s): English

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 Pro:Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator : 70-646 Exam
Product DescriptionExam Number/Code: 70-646
Exam Name: Pro:Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator

“Pro:Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator”, also known as 70-646 exam, is a Microsoft certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Certpaper has assembled to take you through 132 Q&As to your 70-646 Exam preparation. In the 70-646 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in MCTS helping to ready you for your successful Microsoft Certification.

Question: 1
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows
Server 2008. All client computers run Windows Vista. You need to ensure that administrators are allowed to install USB drives on their computers. You must prevent non-administrative users from installing USB drives on their computers. What should you do?

A. Implement Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
B. Implement the Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration (UDDI) Services server role. C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to configure device installation restrictions.
D. Use Windows Server Resource Manager (WSRM) to configure a per user resource access policy.
Answer: C Question: 2
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains a root domain and two child
domains. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
A corporate policy has the following requirements:
All local guest accounts must be renamed and disabled. All local administrator accounts must be renamed.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the requirements of the corporate policy. What should you recommend?

A. Implement a Group Policy object (GPO) for each domain.
B. Implement a Group Policy object (GPO) for the root domain.
C. Deploy Network Policy and Access Services (NPAS) on all domain controllers in each domain.
D. Deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) on the root domain controllers.
Answer: A Question: 3
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains three domains
named contoso.com, region1.contoso.com, and region2.contoso.com. The functional level of the three domains is Windows Server 2008.
In contoso.com, employees from the helpdesk team are members of the Account Operators group. The helpdesk employees are responsible for modifying the properties of user objects in contoso.com.
Employees frequently join and leave the helpdesk team.
You need to implement a solution for managing user accounts that meets the following requirements:
Enables the helpdesk employees to manage the user objects in all domains
Minimizes the administrative effort required to manage the frequent changes to the helpdesk staff
What should you do?

A. Assign Full Control permissions to the Account Operators group in contoso.com for user accounts in all three domains.
B. Add the helpdesk user accounts to the Account Operators group in region1.contoso.com and
to the Account Operators group in region2.contoso.com.
C. Create a new global group in contoso.com named Helpdesk-group. Add the helpdesk user accounts to Helpdesk-group. Add Helpdesk-group to the Account Operators group that is in
all three domains.